1. The first step in constructing an achievement test is:
A. Writing test items
B. Scoring the test
C. Preparing a table of specifications (blueprint)
D. Conducting a pilot test
Answer: C. Preparing a table of specifications (blueprint)
Explanation: The blueprint ensures balanced coverage of content areas and cognitive levels (knowledge, understanding, application).
2. The blueprint of a test ensures:
A. Random selection of questions
B. Reliability of the test
C. Content validity and weightage across areas
D. Difficulty of the questions
Answer: C. Content validity and weightage across areas
Explanation: A blueprint outlines the content areas, learning outcomes, and item types to ensure validity and representativeness.
3. A good achievement test item should primarily:
A. Encourage guessing
B. Be vague and complex
C. Match learning objectives
D. Be easy to memorize
Answer: C. Match learning objectives
Explanation: Items should assess whether learners achieved what was intended in the curriculum or lesson plan.
4. Which of the following is NOT a step in the construction of an achievement test?
A. Preparing scoring key
B. Establishing norms
C. Item writing
D. Drawing up timetable for exams
Answer: D. Drawing up timetable for exams
Explanation: Constructing an achievement test involves writing items, scoring schemes, and validation—not administrative tasks like timetables.
5. Which type of test item is best for assessing higher-order thinking skills?
A. True-False
B. Matching
C. Multiple-choice (application-level)
D. Fill in the blanks
Answer: C. Multiple-choice (application-level)
Explanation: Well-constructed MCQs can assess not just recall but also application, analysis, and evaluation skills.
6. Which type of question is most vulnerable to guessing?
A. Short-answer
B. Multiple-choice
C. Essay
D. Matching type
Answer: B. Multiple-choice
Explanation: MCQs with fewer distractors increase the probability of correct guessing, especially in low-quality items.
7. Which is the most objective type of achievement test item?
A. Essay question
B. Oral question
C. Multiple-choice question
D. Short-answer
Answer: C. Multiple-choice question
Explanation: MCQs have fixed correct answers and are scored objectively, reducing examiner bias.
8. Standardization of a test primarily involves:
A. Giving same marks to all students
B. Making the test difficult
C. Establishing reliability and validity
D. Using essay-type questions only
Answer: C. Establishing reliability and validity
Explanation: Standardization ensures consistent results across different groups and accurate measurement of the intended constructs.
9. The process of item analysis in test standardization involves:
A. Editing grammar
B. Removing all hard questions
C. Calculating difficulty and discrimination indices
D. Ranking students
Answer: C. Calculating difficulty and discrimination indices
Explanation: Item analysis helps refine test items by identifying how well each item distinguishes between high and low achievers.
10. An item with difficulty index of 0.90 is considered:
A. Too difficult
B. Too easy
C. Ideal
D. Misleading
Answer: B. Too easy
Explanation: A difficulty index of 0.90 means 90% of students answered correctly, indicating low difficulty.
11. An item with discrimination index of +0.40 is considered:
A. Poor
B. Moderate
C. Good
D. Negative
Answer: C. Good
Explanation: A discrimination index above +0.30 indicates the item effectively distinguishes between high and low performers.
12. Which type of validity ensures that a test represents the entire learning content?
A. Predictive validity
B. Construct validity
C. Content validity
D. Concurrent validity
Answer: C. Content validity
Explanation: Content validity ensures the test covers the curriculum or syllabus comprehensively and proportionately.
13. To ensure reliability, a test should yield:
A. Different scores every time
B. Consistent results on repeated trials
C. High scores for all
D. Easy-to-answer items
Answer: B. Consistent results on repeated trials
Explanation: Reliability refers to the consistency of test results over time or different occasions.
14. Which of the following methods is NOT used for estimating test reliability?
A. Test-retest
B. Split-half
C. Inter-rater agreement
D. Item discrimination index
Answer: D. Item discrimination index
Explanation: Item discrimination is used in item analysis, not directly for measuring reliability of the test as a whole.
15. Norm-referenced achievement tests are used to:
A. Evaluate individual progress over time
B. Compare a student’s performance with peers
C. Check mastery of specific skills
D. Diagnose learning difficulties
Answer: B. Compare a student’s performance with peers
Explanation: Norm-referenced tests place students in relation to a norm group, focusing on rank or percentile.
16. Criterion-referenced tests aim to:
A. Determine percentile ranks
B. Compare scores with average
C. Measure achievement against predefined standards
D. Predict success in future
Answer: C. Measure achievement against predefined standards
Explanation: These tests assess whether the learner has mastered specific learning outcomes, regardless of other learners’ performance.
17. Which type of test is most suitable for certification or summative evaluation?
A. Diagnostic test
B. Formative test
C. Achievement test
D. Attitude test
Answer: C. Achievement test
Explanation: Achievement tests measure learning outcomes after instruction and are often used for grading or certification.
18. The pilot testing phase in test construction helps to:
A. Finalize the school calendar
B. Ensure students score high
C. Refine the test before final use
D. Replace curriculum
Answer: C. Refine the test before final use
Explanation: A pilot test is administered to a small group to evaluate item quality, clarity, and difficulty.
19. A standard score is used in standardized tests to:
A. Assign random grades
B. Eliminate need for test construction
C. Convert raw scores into a comparable metric
D. Replace student portfolios
Answer: C. Convert raw scores into a comparable metric
Explanation: Standard scores (like z-scores or T-scores) make it easier to compare performance across different versions of a test.
20. Which of the following ensures that a test accurately measures what it intends to measure?
A. Objectivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Usability
Answer: C. Validity
Explanation: Validity is the most important characteristic of a test, confirming that it truly measures the intended learning outcomes.
21. What is the primary purpose of a blueprint in achievement test construction?
A. To analyze student responses
B. To ensure item difficulty
C. To align test items with instructional objectives
D. To design scoring criteria
Answer: C. To align test items with instructional objectives
Explanation: A blueprint helps map test items to learning outcomes, content areas, and cognitive levels, ensuring balanced coverage of the syllabus.
22. Which of the following is the correct sequence in constructing an achievement test?
A. Scoring – Writing Items – Blueprint – Try-out
B. Blueprint – Writing Items – Try-out – Final Form
C. Try-out – Blueprint – Final Form – Writing Items
D. Writing Items – Final Form – Try-out – Blueprint
Answer: B. Blueprint – Writing Items – Try-out – Final Form
Explanation: The standard sequence is to first create a blueprint, then draft items, conduct a try-out, and finalize the test based on item analysis.
23. What does a high discrimination index (close to +1) indicate about a test item?
A. The item is too easy
B. The item is too hard
C. The item effectively distinguishes between high and low performers
D. The item is flawed
Answer: C. The item effectively distinguishes between high and low performers
Explanation: A high discrimination index means the item can differentiate between students who understand the material and those who do not.
24. Which statistical method is commonly used in standardizing an achievement test?
A. Correlation
B. T-test
C. Item analysis
D. Regression
Answer: C. Item analysis
Explanation: Item analysis, including difficulty and discrimination indices, is crucial in test standardization to refine and improve item quality.
25. What is the ideal range for item difficulty index in achievement tests?
A. 0.0 – 0.1
B. 0.1 – 0.3
C. 0.3 – 0.7
D. 0.7 – 1.0
Answer: C. 0.3 – 0.7
Explanation: Items within this range are neither too easy nor too difficult and are considered optimal for distinguishing student performance.
26. A test is said to have content validity if:
A. It predicts future performance
B. It is highly reliable
C. It covers the learning objectives adequately
D. It discriminates well
Answer: C. It covers the learning objectives adequately
Explanation: Content validity ensures that the test measures the intended content comprehensively and proportionately.
27. What is a norm-referenced test primarily used for?
A. Diagnosing learning difficulties
B. Comparing students to a standard
C. Comparing a student’s performance with peers
D. Assessing mastery of skills
Answer: C. Comparing a student’s performance with peers
Explanation: Norm-referenced tests rank students against each other, typically on a bell curve.
28. Which format is most commonly used in standardized achievement tests?
A. Essay type
B. Short answer
C. Multiple-choice
D. Fill in the blanks
Answer: C. Multiple-choice
Explanation: Multiple-choice items are objective, easy to score, and allow wide content sampling, making them popular in standardized tests.
29. Which of the following is NOT a quality of a good achievement test?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Bias
D. Objectivity
Answer: C. Bias
Explanation: A good test should be free from bias, ensuring fairness for all test-takers regardless of background.
30. An achievement test measures:
A. Future potential
B. Intelligence
C. Learned knowledge and skills
D. Personality traits
Answer: C. Learned knowledge and skills
Explanation: Achievement tests are designed to evaluate what a student has learned in a specific subject or course.
31. Which cognitive level in Bloom’s taxonomy is tested by “application” type questions?
A. Knowledge
B. Comprehension
C. Application
D. Analysis
Answer: C. Application
Explanation: Application-level questions assess students’ ability to use learned knowledge in new situations.
32. In achievement test construction, test items should be:
A. Ambiguous
B. Context-free
C. Aligned with learning objectives
D. The same for all classes
Answer: C. Aligned with learning objectives
Explanation: Items must directly reflect the intended learning outcomes to ensure content validity.
33. The process of test standardization includes all EXCEPT:
A. Norm development
B. Reliability testing
C. Subjective interpretation
D. Validity testing
Answer: C. Subjective interpretation
Explanation: Standardization seeks objectivity and statistical rigor, not subjective interpretation.
34. A test item with a difficulty index of 0.95 is considered:
A. Very difficult
B. Ideal
C. Too easy
D. Discriminative
Answer: C. Too easy
Explanation: A difficulty index near 1.0 means most students got the item right, so it doesn’t challenge or differentiate effectively.
35. Which of the following enhances the reliability of an achievement test?
A. Vague questions
B. Varied scoring rubrics
C. Clear and consistent items
D. Complex sentence structures
Answer: C. Clear and consistent items
Explanation: Reliability is supported by well-written, unambiguous, and consistently scored test items.
36. Which is the best method for analyzing item difficulty and discrimination?
A. Rank order correlation
B. Item response theory
C. Standard deviation
D. Mean and median only
Answer: B. Item response theory
Explanation: IRT provides a sophisticated model for analyzing how individual items function across levels of student ability.
37. What does standardization of a test ensure?
A. The test is subjectively scored
B. Uniformity in administration and scoring
C. It is used only once
D. Random item arrangement
Answer: B. Uniformity in administration and scoring
Explanation: Standardization ensures that all test-takers experience the same conditions, improving fairness and reliability.
38. Which of the following is LEAST relevant during the try-out of a test?
A. Evaluating time limits
B. Estimating internal consistency
C. Adjusting teacher grading styles
D. Analyzing item performance
Answer: C. Adjusting teacher grading styles
Explanation: Try-out focuses on the test itself, not on individual teacher grading preferences.
39. The process of establishing performance benchmarks is associated with:
A. Norm-referencing
B. Content validity
C. Criterion-referencing
D. Discrimination index
Answer: C. Criterion-referencing
Explanation: Criterion-referenced tests set absolute standards or benchmarks to measure mastery of content.
40. What is the function of a table of specifications (ToS)?
A. Assigning grades
B. Item scoring
C. Balancing content and objectives
D. Measuring personality traits
Answer: C. Balancing content and objectives
Explanation: A ToS guides the test developer to ensure appropriate content coverage and alignment with cognitive levels.
41. Which of the following is NOT a step in constructing an achievement test?
a) Planning the test
b) Preparing a lesson plan
c) Writing test items
d) Administering the test
Answer: b) Preparing a lesson plan
Explanation: While related to teaching, preparing a lesson plan is not a step in test construction. Test construction involves planning the test, item writing, administration, and analysis.
42. Item difficulty index is best described as:
a) Percentage of students who passed the test
b) Percentage of students who selected the correct answer
c) Ratio of correct to incorrect responses
d) Number of distractors used
Answer: b) Percentage of students who selected the correct answer
Explanation: The difficulty index (p-value) is the proportion of students who answered the item correctly. Ideal values range from 30% to 70%.
43. The discrimination index of a test item refers to:
a) Its fairness across gender
b) Its ability to distinguish between high and low achievers
c) Its use of different languages
d) Its compliance with curriculum
Answer: b) Its ability to distinguish between high and low achievers
Explanation: A good discrimination index shows how well an item separates high-performing from low-performing students.
44. Which statistical measure is commonly used to check the internal consistency of a test?
a) Pearson’s r
b) Spearman-Brown formula
c) Cronbach’s alpha
d) Chi-square
Answer: c) Cronbach’s alpha
Explanation: Cronbach’s alpha is a widely used statistic to determine the internal consistency reliability of test items.
45. The blueprint of an achievement test includes all EXCEPT:
a) Content areas
b) Instructional objectives
c) Number of students
d) Item types
Answer: c) Number of students
Explanation: A test blueprint outlines content coverage, objectives, and item types—not the number of students.
46. What is meant by ‘norm-referenced’ achievement testing?
a) Testing based on a syllabus
b) Comparison with an absolute standard
c) Comparison with peer performance
d) Comparison with teachers’ expectations
Answer: c) Comparison with peer performance
Explanation: Norm-referenced tests compare a student’s score with the performance of a norm group.
47. Which type of validity ensures the test covers all content areas intended to be measured?
a) Construct validity
b) Criterion-related validity
c) Content validity
d) Predictive validity
Answer: c) Content validity
Explanation: Content validity ensures that test items represent the full range of the subject matter.
48. The process of standardization includes:
a) Only test item writing
b) Only administering the test
c) Administering, scoring, analyzing, and establishing norms
d) Teaching and re-teaching
Answer: c) Administering, scoring, analyzing, and establishing norms
Explanation: Standardization involves careful test administration, analysis of results, and norm development for interpretation.
49. A teacher designs a test with mostly lower-order thinking skills. This test lacks:
a) Reliability
b) Objectivity
c) Comprehensiveness
d) Practicality
Answer: c) Comprehensiveness
Explanation: Comprehensiveness means covering various cognitive levels; focusing only on lower-order skills reduces comprehensiveness.
50. In the test construction process, the first task is to:
a) Write the items
b) Analyze the results
c) Define the objectives
d) Standardize the test
Answer: c) Define the objectives
Explanation: Defining clear learning objectives is the first step to ensure alignment with curriculum and instructional goals.
51. The term ‘test manual’ in standardized tests refers to:
a) A teacher’s guide
b) Instructions for students
c) A document detailing administration, scoring, and norms
d) A classroom logbook
Answer: c) A document detailing administration, scoring, and norms
Explanation: A test manual provides essential information for proper use of standardized tests.
52. Item analysis helps in:
a) Creating questions
b) Scoring objectively
c) Evaluating quality of test items
d) Improving teaching methods
Answer: c) Evaluating quality of test items
Explanation: Item analysis identifies effective and ineffective items based on difficulty and discrimination indices.
53. Which of the following is a criterion for a good distractor in multiple-choice questions?
a) Longer than the correct answer
b) Similar in plausibility to the correct answer
c) Grammatically incorrect
d) Irrelevant to the content
Answer: b) Similar in plausibility to the correct answer
Explanation: Effective distractors should be plausible to ensure they challenge students and discriminate well.
54. In a standardized test, norms are developed using:
a) Only top-performing students
b) Random classroom samples
c) Representative samples of the population
d) Teacher-selected questions
Answer: c) Representative samples of the population
Explanation: Norms must be based on a representative sample to ensure generalizability.
55. Achievement tests are primarily used to assess:
a) Student attitudes
b) Teacher performance
c) Learning outcomes
d) Intelligence levels
Answer: c) Learning outcomes
Explanation: Achievement tests measure how well students have learned the material taught.
56. The process of equating different forms of a test ensures:
a) Shorter testing time
b) Easier scoring
c) Equal difficulty and fairness
d) More objective questions
Answer: c) Equal difficulty and fairness
Explanation: Equating ensures that different versions of a test are comparable in difficulty.
57. What is the function of a test-retest method in reliability checking?
a) To find item difficulty
b) To check test administration time
c) To evaluate test consistency over time
d) To analyze distractor effectiveness
Answer: c) To evaluate test consistency over time
Explanation: Test-retest reliability measures the stability of test scores across different administrations.
58. Standardization is complete when:
a) Items are written
b) Test is administered once
c) Norms and reliability/validity measures are established
d) Results are used in the classroom
Answer: c) Norms and reliability/validity measures are established
Explanation: A test is considered standardized when statistical properties like norms, validity, and reliability are determined.
59. The term ‘scoring key’ refers to:
a) Model answers
b) A rubric for essays
c) Guide to evaluate open-ended questions
d) Correct options for objective test items
Answer: d) Correct options for objective test items
Explanation: The scoring key provides correct responses, used in scoring objective-type tests.
60. Standardized achievement tests are designed to:
a) Help students improve
b) Provide national or state-wide comparison
c) Replace classroom tests
d) Emphasize creative responses
Answer: b) Provide national or state-wide comparison
Explanation: Standardized tests enable comparison across large populations using consistent norms and procedures.