- The condition in which people believed themselves to be possessed by wolves and Imitated their behavior was known as–
a. Tarantism.
b. Wolfism.
c. Lycanthropy.
d. Caninothrophy.
Answer: c. Lycanthropy.
2. The process introduced by Freud wherein patients talked freely about themselves-Providing information about their feelings, motives thus revealing inner obstacles is-
a. Dream Analysis.
b. Free Association.
c. Unconscious Therapy.
d. Psychosexual Therapy.
Answer: b. Free Association.
3. The mental hygiene movement was led by-
a. Dorothea Dix.
b. William Tuke.
c. Reginald Scott.
d. Robert Burton.
Answer: a. Dorothea Dix.
4. Which two anxiety disorders in the DSM-IV-TR have been categorized as separate Disorders in the DSM-V?
a. Trichotillomania and OCD.
b. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder and Post Traumatic Stress Disorder.
c. Depression and Dissociative Disorders.
d. Selective Mutism and Mood Disorders.
Answer: b. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder and Post Traumatic Stress Disorder.
5. Which of the following is not included under “schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic Disorders” according to the DSM-V?
a. Schizoaffective Disorder.
b. Schizophreniform Disorder.
c. Paranoid Schizophrenia.
d. Catatonia.
Answer: c. Paranoid Schizophrenia.
6. An underlying representation of knowledge that guides the current processing of Information is –
a. A behaviour.
b. An illusion.
c. A machination.
d. A schema.
Answer: d. A schema.
7. According to Albert Bandura, maladaptive behavior and psychopathology can be a result Of-
Conditioning.
Heredity.
Imitation.
Both a and b.
Answer: Imitation.
8. The Deception of Demons’- a book which made a careful study of the practice of witch Hunting was authored by-
a. St. Teresa of Avila.
b. St. Vincent de Paul.
c. Johann Wayer.
d. Reginald Scott.
Answer: c. Johann Wayer.
9. Mesmerism was infact –
a. Planetary power.
b. Hypnosis.
c. Hypochondriasis.
d. Astral Power.
Answer: b. Hypnosis.
10. The humane and progressive techniques adopted by Pussin, Pinel, Tuke and their Followers is known by the name of-
a. Behavioural therapy.
b. Cognitive therapy.
c. Moral therapy.
d. Spiritual therapy.
Answer: b. Cognitive therapy.
11. People with _________________________ are afraid of being in public places or Situations where escape might be difficult or help, unavailable, should they experience panic Or become incapacitated.
a. Social phobia.
b. Agoraphobia.
c. Social Anxiety Disorder.
d. Generalized anxiety disorder.
Answer: b. Agoraphobia.
12. Down syndrome is caused by a trisome in chromosome number-
a. 22.
b. 23.
c. 21.
d. 20.
Answer: c. 21.
13. Which of the following neurotransmitters is strongly implied in anxiety disorders?
a. Dopamine.
b. Neurotensin.
c. GABA.
d. Substance p.
Answer: c. GABA.
14. The ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases-10) has listed Specific (isolated) Phobias under?
a. Other anxiety disorders.
b. Phobic anxiety disorder, unspecified.
c. Phobic Anxiety Disorder (F40).
d. Dissociative [conversion] disorders.
Answer: c. Phobic Anxiety Disorder (F40).
15. One of these was not a socio-cultural theorist. Identify
a. Ruth Benedict.
b. Abram Kardiner.
c. Margaret Mead.
d. Kurt Koffka.
Answer: d. Kurt Koffka.
16. People with OCD have an inflated sense of responsibility and this in turn, can be Associated with beliefs that simply having a thought, of doing something is morally Equivalent to actually having done that act. This is called ________________?
a. Avoidance behaviour theory.
b. Thought–action fusion.
c. Social Learning Theory.
d. Dichotomous thinking.
Answer: b. Thought–action fusion.
17. When women are not hired for a job because they are women, it results in-
a. Informed Discrimination.
b. Treatment Discrimination.
c. Access Discrimination.
d. Planned Discrimination.
Answer: b. Treatment Discrimination.
18. DSM-5 identifies two subtypes of social phobia. They are _____________________, And______________________
a. Fear of Performance Situations and Fear of Non-performance Situations.
b. Fear of Animals and Social Situations.
c. Fear of Performing in public and Fear of Elevators.
d. Situational Phobia and Agoraphobia.
Answer: a. Fear of Performance Situations and Fear of Non-performance Situations.
19. The adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) is releasd by the-
a. The adrenal Gland.
b. The hypothalamus.
c. The amygdala.
d. The pituitary Gland.
Answer: d. The pituitary Gland.
20. Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the PCT- Panic Control Treatment For persons with Panic Disorder.
a. Exposure to feared situation Control breathing Education about the nature of anxiety Teaching the client to understand the illogical errors people with panic disorder have and thus challenge their own thoughts regarding anxiety.
b. Control breathing Exposure to feared situation Teaching the client to understand the illogical errors people with panic disorder have and thus challenge their own thoughts regarding anxiety Education about the nature of anxiety.
c. Education about the nature of anxiety Teaching the client to understand the illogical errors people with panic disorder have and thus challenge their own thoughts regarding anxiety Control breathing Exposure to feared situation.
d. Education about the nature of anxiety Control breathing Teaching the client to understand the illogical errors people with panic disorder have and thus challenge their own thoughts regarding anxiety Exposure to feared situations.
Answer: d. Education about the nature of anxiety Control breathing Teaching the client to understand the illogical errors people with panic disorder have and thus challenge their own thoughts regarding anxiety Exposure to feared situations.
21. Which of the following symptoms is not a Re-experiencing symptom?
a. Staying away from places, events, or objects that are reminders of the experience.
b. Flashbacks—reliving the trauma over and over, including physical symptoms like a racing heart or sweating
c. Bad dreams.
d. Frightening thoughts.
Answer: a. Staying away from places, events, or objects that are reminders of the experience.
22. The term ‘iatrogenic’ refers to
a. Auditory.
b. Symbolism.
c. Dreamlike phenomena.
d. Induced by therapy.
Answer: d. Induced by therapy.
23. People with __________________________ feel as though they have become cut off from themselves and are viewing themselves from the outside or that they are functioning like robots or living in a dream
a. Derailed disorder.
b. Transitory disorder.
c. Depersonalization disorder.
d. Disengagement disorder.
Answer: c. Depersonalization disorder.
24. Which of the following is not an Avoidance Symptom?
a. Staying away from places, events, or objects that are reminders of the experience.
b. Feeling emotionally numb.
c. Losing interest in activities that were enjoyable in the past.
d. Forgetting how or being unable to talk.
Answer: d. Forgetting how or being unable to talk.
25. The intentional production or feigning of physical or psychological signs or symptoms, the motivation for which is to assume the sick role and external incentives for the behavior are absent indicates which problem as described in DSM IV TR
a. Factitious disorder.
b. Somato-pathology.
c. Pathological sickness.
d. Sick role formation disorder.
Answer: a. Factitious disorder.
26. In a rare pattern of ____________, the person forgets all events that occur after a specific period up to the present, including events that occur after the onset of amnesia.
a. Pre and post amnesia.
b. Rare-factor amnesia.
c. Non-specified amnesia.
d. Continuous amnesia.
Answer: d. Continuous amnesia.
27. The range of symptoms for ____________ described in DSM IV TR is practically as diverse as for physically based ailments. (1) Sensory, (2) Motor, (3) Seizures, and (4) Mixed presentation from the first three categories.
a. Body dysmorphic disorder.
b. Sensory-motor disorder.
c. Conversion disorder.
d. Multi-symptom disorder.
Answer: c. Conversion disorder.
28. One of the personality factors discussed as a factor in Pain disorder described in DSM IV TR is that it may develop due to a conversion mechanism and some patients may have a personality called ______________
a. Deficient personality.
b. Pain-prone personality.
c. Pain-received personality.
d. Dark pain personality.
Answer: b. Pain-prone personality.
29. The therapy __________________ combines cognitive-behavioral and psychodynamic approaches
a. Cognitive-dynamic therapy.
b. Cognitive therapy.
c. Tactical-integration therapy.
d. Re-integration therapy.
Answer: c. Tactical-integration therapy.
30. According to behavioral and socio-cultural theory, the way to treat dissociative symptoms is _________________ them
a. To stop reinforcing.
b. To condition.
c. To generalize.
d. To desensitize.
Answer: a. To stop reinforcing.
31. When drug, alcohol use or withdrawal, results in psychotic symptoms, this is called _______________ type of psychosis.
a. Dementia.
b. Substance-induced psychosis.
c. Delirium.
d. Post-Partum.
Answer: b. Substance-induced psychosis.
32. Pain caused due to tightness or pressure in the chest region is referred to as _________, and it is often triggered by emotional or physical stress; once the stressful activity is stopped, the pain subsides.
a. Angina.
b. Coronary heart disease.
c. Angioplasty.
d. Heart attack.
Answer: a. Angina.
33. Inability to initiate and persevere in goal-directed behaviour is _______________.
a. Avolition.
b. Neologism.
c. Hallucinations.
d. Flat affect.
Answer: a. Avolition.
34. Dysthymic disorder differs from major depressive disorder in the following ways:
a. Symptoms include hallucinations and delusional thinking.
b. Symptoms are less severe but last longer.
c. Symptoms only affect women during the winter months.
d. Symptoms are more severe and last longer.
Answer: b. Symptoms are less severe but last longer.
35. Which of these mechanisms does not regulate Blood Pressure?
a. Sympathetic nervous system.
b. Renal system.
c. Digestive system.
d. Endocrine system.
Answer: c. Digestive system.
36. Which of the following is not a cause of Hypertension?
a. Sleep apnea.
b. Insulin resistance.
c. Pollen infections.
d. Obesity.
Answer: c. Pollen infections.
37. _____________delusions are defined as arising suddenly and not being comprehensible in terms of normal mental processes.
a. Secondary.
b. Tertiary.
c. Primary.
d. Somatic.
Answer: c. Primary.
38. When the heart is unable to pump adequate blood to the heart, the body cannot meet its needs and as a result the individual experiences
a. Heart attack.
b. Shortness of breath.
c. Cardiac arrest.
d. Asthma.
Answer: b. Shortness of breath.
39. Within mood disorders, two key symptoms of a major depressive episode are:
a. Diminished need for sleep and loss of energy.
b. Lack of interest in usual activities and recurrent thoughts of death.
c. Problems in concentration and compulsive behaviors.
d. Very low mood and agoraphobia.
Answer: b. Lack of interest in usual activities and recurrent thoughts of death.
40. Pervasive social and interpersonal deficits are noticed in ________________.
a. Schizotypal personality disorder.
b. Catatonic schizophrenia.
c. Undifferentiated schizophrenia.
d. None of the above.
Answer: a. Schizotypal personality disorder.
41. ________________ occurs when cells within a tissue divide faster than normal and extra cells build up, or proliferate
a. Dysplasia.
b. Cancer.
c. Melanoma.
d. Hyperplasia.
Answer: d. Hyperplasia.
42. Discomfort and pain in the abdomen for at least_______ is the main symptom that the doctor looks for to make a diagnosis of IBS.
a. 12 weeks.
b. 13 weeks.
c. 7 weeks.
d. 1 month.
Answer: a. 12 weeks.
43. Drugs known as _________ are the most commonly prescribed medications for treating ADHD in children and adults.
a. Psycho Stimulants.
b. Tranquillizers.
c. Antidepressants.
b. Antipsychotic.
Answer: a. Psycho Stimulants.
44. The concurrent occurrence of four or more of the following symptoms will help the expert ascertain the disorder as one of chronic fatigue syndrome. Identify the symptom which does not fit into the diagnostic criteria.
a. Sore throat.
b. Varicose veins.
c. Tender lymph nodes.
d. Muscle pain.
Answer: b. Varicose veins.
45. Hyperactivity tends to decrease in adults, while ________ tends to get worse as the pressure of adult life increases in ADHD patients.
a. Concentration.
b. Interpersonal relationships.
c. Inactivity.
d. Sleep patterns.
Answer: c. Inactivity.
46. Identify the correct sequence of the 4 stages of a migraine headache.
a. Prodrome Aura Attack Postdrome.
b. Postdrome Attack Prodrome Aura.
c. Aura Attack Prodrome Aura.
d. Prodrome Attack Aura Postdrome.
Answer: a. Prodrome Aura Attack Postdrome.
47. Which of the following is IBS considered as?
a. An inflammatory bowel obstruction.
b. An intestinal disorder.
c. A GI tract infection.
d. A brain-gut disorder.
Answer: d. A brain-gut disorder.
48. The polyphenols present in Tea are
a. Caffeine.
b. Flavonoids.
c. Catechins.
d. Goitrogens.
Answer: c. Catechins.
49. ___________ is that kind of a headache which includes an ‘aura’ which precedes actual pain by few minutes to an hour. The ‘aura’ is usually accompanied by visual disturbance tingling feeling or numbness.
a. Cluster Migraine.
b. Classic Migraine.
c. Common Migraine.
d. Tension Headache.
Answer: b. Classic Migraine.
50. This is a potentially serious sleep disorder in which breathing repeatedly stops and starts
a. Obstructive sleep Apnea.
b. Chronic Fatigue Syndrome.
c. Insomnia.
d. Hypertension.
Answer: a. Obstructive sleep Apnea.
51. Which symptom is not associated with Asperger’s syndrome?
a. Be very verbal.
b. Communicate with others about their own interests.
c. Use a flat or monotone voice.
d. Initiate questions if the topic does not interest them.
Answer: d. Initiate questions if the topic does not interest them.
52. Which of the following is not a characteristic to identify and diagnose tic disorders?
a. The age when tics began.
b. Intellectual disability.
c. Severity of the tics.
d. Whether tics are motor or vocal or both.
Answer: b. Intellectual disability.
53. Which is not a main clinical feature of Asperger’s syndrome?
a. Empathy.
b. Repetitive speech.
c. Poor nonverbal communication.
d. Clumsy movements and odd postures.
Answer: a. Empathy.
54. The focus of family psychotherapy in treating ODD is _____________
a. To improve communication and mutual understanding.
b. Emphasizing on problem-solving skills training.
c. Decreasing negativity.
d. Social skills training to increase flexibility and improve social skills and frustration tolerance with peers.
Answer: a. To improve communication and mutual understanding.
55. __________of ODD seems to be associated with the development of severe problems later in life, including aggressiveness and antisocial behavior.
a. Gender.
b. Heredity.
c. Education.
d. Age of onset.
Answer: d. Age of onset.
56. Lying, truancy and breaking parental rules which cause only minor harm to others are symptoms of ____________ form of conduct disorder.
a. Mild.
b. Moderate.
c. Severe.
d. Profound.
Answer: a. Mild.
57. Autistic Spectrum Disorders are a group of developmental disabilities that can cause significant social, communication and behavioral challenges
a. Conduct.
b. Antisocial.
c. Developmental.
d. Learning.
Answer: c. Developmental.
58. Autism presents itself during the first three years of a person’s life
a. 1-3 Years.
b. Above 5 years.
c. 0-1 year.
d. Above 15 years.
Answer: a. 1-3 Years.
59. ___________ refers to involuntary uttering of obscene words or phrases
a. Coprolalia.
b. Echolalia.
c. Palilalia.
d. Twitches.
Answer: a. Coprolalia.
60. Which of the following interventions is based on the view that childhood problems result from inappropriate family structure and organization?
a. Systematic family therapy.
b. Parent training programmes.
c. Functional family therapy.
d. Transactional therapy.
Answer: a. Systematic family therapy.
61. _________________therapy focuses on the dysfunctional thoughts and behaviors involved in binge eating.
a. Cognitive Behavioural.
b. Psychoanalytic.
c. Reality.
d. Humanistic.
Answer: a. Cognitive Behavioural.
62. CDD occurs as a result of some form of _______________.
a. Faulty Genes.
b. Central nervous system pathology.
c. Personality disorder.
d. Anxiety neurosis.
Answer: b. Central nervous system pathology.
63. Which definition of mental retardation given by the following has introduced the dual criteria for conceptualizing mental retardation?
a. Grossman in 1971.
b. Luckson in 2001.
c. Heber in 1961.
d. Jean Itard and Edourd Seguin in 1854.
Answer: c. Heber in 1961.
64. Which of the following does not provide conceptual framework for clinical diagnosis of mental retardation?
a. Persons with Disabilities Act, 1996.
b. WHO.
c. AAIDD.
d. APA.
Answer: a. Persons with Disabilities Act, 1996.
65. Which of the following is NOT a measure of adaptive functioning?
a. AAMR Adaptive Behaviour Scales-School.
b. Vineland Adaptive Behaviour Scales.
c. Scales of Independent Behaviour—Revised.
d. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children.
Answer: d. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children.
66. In __________ syndrome the mutation of a 3-nucleotide sequence (i.e. Cytosine-Guanin-Guanin) repeats itself more than 200 times.
a. DiGeorge Syndrome.
b. Down Syndrome.
c. Fragile X Syndrome.
d. Rett Syndrome.
Answer: c. Fragile X Syndrome.
67. Match the disorders with their characteristic features
Disorders.
a. Language Disorder.
b. Speech Sound Disorder.
c. Childhood-onset fluency Disorder.
d. Social Communication Disorder
Characteristic Features
i. Disturbances in normal fluency & time patterning of speech.
ii. Limited sentence structure & Impairments in discourse.
iii. Difficulties understanding what is not explicitly stated & nonliteral/ambiguous meanings of language.
iv. Early onset of difficulties with speech that interferes with speech intelligibility or prevents verbal communication of messages.
a. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv).
b. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii).
c. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii).
d. a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv).
Answer: c. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii).
68. Match the following
a. Phonology.
b. Morphology.
c. Grammar.
d. Semantics
Characteristic Features
i. Meaning of individual words or sentences.
ii. Rules governing the use of morphemes and the syntax.
iii. Sounds of a language & the rule for combining these sounds.
iv. Study of word structures.
a. a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv).
b. a(ii), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii).
c. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i).
d. a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv).
Answer: c. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i).
69. ______________ refers to the use of vomiting, diuretics, or laxatives to clear the stomach and intestines after a binge.
a. Purging.
b. Over eating.
c. Loss of appetite.
d. Binging.
Answer: a. Purging.
70. Which of these is not associated with CDD?
a. Stereotypes patterns of behaviour.
b. Loss of bladder control.
c. Poor motor skills.
d. No anxiety.
Answer: d. No anxiety.
71. ____________ is employed in therapy for Bulimia Nervosa to control the urge to induce vomiting,
a. Cognitive Behavioural therapy.
b. Response Prevention
c. Physical Exercise.
d. Relaxation Techniques.
Answer: d. Relaxation Techniques.
72. The inappropriate behaviour of vomiting, fasting, using laxatives, and diuretics in Bulimia is called ___________?
a. Bingeing.
b. Purging.
c. Over Eating.
d. Compulsions.
Answer: b. Purging.
73. People with ____________ have a narrow view of the world and find it hard to participate in social activities.
a. Personality disorder.
b. Neurotic disorder.
c. Organic disorder.
d. Mood disorder.
Answer: a. Personality disorder.
74. ________________ personalities may appear to be emotionally “cold” or excessively serious.
a. Borderline.
b. Paranoid.
c. Neurotic.
d. Psychotic.
Answer: b. Paranoid.
75. __________ personalities are unstable in interpersonal relationships, behaviour, mood, and self-image.
a. Borderline.
b. Neurotic.
c. Histrionic.
d. Avoidant.
Answer: a. Borderline.
76. _________ personalities experience the world in extremes, viewing experiences and others as either “black” or “white.”
a. Obsessive.
b. Schizotypal.
a. Borderline.
d. Histrionic.
Answer: a. Borderline.
77. __________ therapy approach is designed to help the family function in more positive and constructive ways by exploring patterns of communication and providing support and education.
a. Family therapy.
b. Cognitive behavioural therapy.
c. Group therapy.
d. Psychoeducation.
Answer: a. Family therapy.
78. _____________ are a group of mental illnesses that are a product of long-term thoughts and behaviors and are typically considered to be unhealthy and a hindrance to a person’s social relationships.
a. Anxiety disorder.
b. Personality disorders.
c. Neurocognitive disorders.
d. Dissociated disorders.
Answer: b. Personality disorders.
79. In ____________ delirium, people tend to sleep more and become inattentive and disorganized with daily tasks
a. Hyperactive.
b. Inactive.
c. Mixed.
d. Hypoactive.
Answer: d. Hypoactive.
80. ____________ therapy is directed at helping younger children. It involves the use of toys, blocks, dolls, puppets, drawings, and games to help the child recognize, identify, and verbalize feelings.
a. Art therapy.
b. Group therapy.
c. Play therapy.
d. Music therapy.
Answer: c. Play therapy.
81. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a test used to assess ___________ in people with suspected dementia.
a. Mental skills.
b. Cognitive skills.
c. State of minimal mental problems.
d. Status of mind related mental issues.
Answer: b. Cognitive skills.
82. The brains of individuals with Alzheimer’s have an abundance of _________ and __________.
a. Myelin, Inhibitors.
b. Plaques, tangles.
c. Atherosclerosis.
d. Judgement, behaviour.
Answer: b. Plaques, tangles.
83. The two most common causes of infarction are ___________ and _____________.
a. Concussion and confusion.
b. Contusion and rarefaction.
c. Embolism and thrombosis.
d. None of the above.
Answer: c. Embolism and thrombosis.
84. CADASIL stands for?
a. Cerebral automatic dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarct and leukoencephalopathy
b. Cerebral amyloid dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarct and leukoencephalopathy.
c. Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarct and leukoencephalopathy.
d. Cerebral autosomal dominant atrophy with subcortical infarct and leukoencephalopathy.
Answer: c. Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarct and leukoencephalopathy.
85. ____________ is a progressive disorder characterized by nerve cell loss and atrophy of multiple areas of the brain, and have abnormal accumulations of the protein tau
a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.
b. Corticobasal degeneration.
c. Dementia Pugilistica.
d. Alzheimer’s disease.
Answer: b. Corticobasal degeneration.
86. ___________ is a term that refers to a progressive loss of cognitive functions that often occurs in old age.
a. Delirium.
b. Alzheimer’s disease.
c. Parkinson’s Disease.
d. Dementia.
Answer: d. Dementia.
87. As a part of the medical treatment for Alzheimer’s disease, ____________ are prescribed to treat problems related to memory, thinking, language, judgment and other thought processes.
a. Memantine.
b. Neurotransmitters.
c. Cholinesterase inhibitors.
d. Benzodiazepine.
Answer: c. Cholinesterase inhibitors.
88. _________ is the involuntary twitching movements that first tend to involve the fingers and toes and then progress to include the whole body, and is a characteristic symptom of the ______.
a. Bradykinesia, Pick’s disease.
c. Cholinesterase inhibitors.
c. Tremors, Pick’s Disease.
d. Dystonia, Huntington’s disease.
Answer: c. Cholinesterase inhibitors.
89. _________ is a startling or traumatic event, which may or may not involve physical injury, usually has some specific symbolic significance for the individual and sometimes can be accounted for the abnormal behaviour not caused by a traumatic brain injury
a. Cerebrovascular Accidents
b. Infections.
c. Psychotic Behaviour.
d. Traumatic Neurosis.
Answer: d. Traumatic Neurosis.
90. Which of the following is not a brain infection?
a. Encephalitis.
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.
c. Cerebral Abscess.
d. Meningitis.
Answer: b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.
91. _______________ is a dementia caused by small or mini strokes that may be so small that they go undetected, but eventually they result in a stepwise deterioration of cognitive functioning.
a. Stoke.
b. Frontotemporal Dementia.
c. Mixed dementia.
d. Multi-infarct dementia.
Answer: d. Multi-infarct dementia.
92. _____________ Dementia, in the early stages of the disease it differs from Alzheimer’s in as much as memory may not be badly affected.
a. Frontotemporal dementia.
b. Vascular dementia.
c. Lewy dementia.
d. Dementia due to Parkinson’s disease.
Answer: a. Frontotemporal dementia.
93. Under nourished; having involuntary jerky eye movements or paralysis of the muscles that move the eyes; poor balance, other signs of damage to the cerebellum; and disorientation, confusion or mild memory loss: are symptoms found in individuals suffering with __________
a. Alcohol amnestic syndrome.
b. Dementia.
c. Korsakoff’s syndrome.
d. Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Answer: d. Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
94. __________ is where a person invents events to fill the gaps in memory
a. Confabulation.
b. Agnosia.
c. Memory loss.
d. Interrupted cognitive functions.
Answer: a. Confabulation.
95. Empty affairs, voyeurism, visiting prostitutes, exhibitionism, engaging in cybersex are all characteristic of
a. Sex addiction.
b. Porn addiction.
c. Drug addiction.
d. Alcohol addiction.
Answer: a. Sex addiction.
96. Which drug is used to treat mental illness, rabies, pain, cholera and rheumatism in 1800s?
a. Opioids.
b. Hashish.
c. Marijuana.
d. Barbiturates.
Answer: c. Marijuana.
97. Alcohol consumption in heavy bouts will make the platelets clump together in the form of blood clots and this eventually leads to __________________
a. Heart attack.
b. Fever and chills.
c. Body collapse.
d. Weakness in the individual.
Answer: a. Heart attack.
98. ______, a drug that creates extremely uncomfortable effects when followed by alcohol, may also be administered to prevent an immediate return to drinking.
a. Acetaldehyde.
b. Emetine hydrochloride.
c. Antabuse.
d. Disulpherim.
Answer: d. Disulpherim.
99. In ____________________ phase, the person starts out drinking in social gatherings but very soon experiences a great relief from tensions…a feeling that comes in perhaps because the tensions he is experiencing are greater than others or perhaps he does not possess the skills to handle tensions effectively.
a. Alcoholism.
b. Alcohol dependence.
c. Pre-alcoholic symptomatic.
d. Prodromal and succeeding.
Answer: c. Pre-alcoholic symptomatic.
100. The condition that refers to a disorder wherein the individual uses a minimum of three different classes of substances indiscriminately is
a. Polysubstance dependence.
b. Addiction.
c. Multi-abuse.
d. Differential tolerance.
Answer: a. Polysubstance dependence.
101. Two drugs ___________________ and ________________ have mind-altering and hallucinogenic properties, but their principal effect appears to be enabling the individual to see, hear, and otherwise experience events in unaccustomed ways—of transporting him into a realm of “nonordinary reality.”
a. Amphetamines and cocaine.
b. Valium and opium.
c. Stimulates and non stimulates.
d. Mescaline and psilocybin.
Answer: d. Mescaline and psilocybin.
102. Which one of these is not a hallucinogen?
a. Valium.
b. Mescaline.
c. Psilocybin.
d. Marijuana.
Answer: a. Valium.
103. Which impulse control disorder is also a dangerous addiction?
a. Kleptomania.
b. Pathological Gambling.
c. Pyromania.
d. Trichotillomania.
Answer: b. Pathological Gambling.
104. Which of these does NOT fit as a criterion to diagnose Kleptomania?
a. They are aware that stealing is wrong.
b. Experience pleasure or relief after the theft.
c. Do not experience tension before the theft.
d. Not related to another disorder.
Answer: c. Do not experience tension before the theft.
105. Gestalt therapy was developed by
a. Fritz and Laura Perls.
b. Eric Berne.
c. Carl Rogers.
d. Sigmund Freud.
Answer: a. Fritz and Laura Perls.
106. Psychotherapists who combine several different approaches in their therapy are said to be
a. Enigmatic.
b. Dynamic.
c. Eclectic.
d. Imaginative.
Answer: c. Eclectic.
107. Identify the correct sequence of the psychosexual stages of development.
a. Oral Anal Phallic Latency Genital.
b. Anal Oral Latency Phallic Genital.
c. Anal Genital Latency Oral Phallic.
d. Anal Oral Genital Phallic Latency.
Answer: a. Oral Anal Phallic Latency Genital.
108. __________ are called the royal roads to the unconscious.
a. Defense Mechanism.
b. Super ego functions.
c. Dreams.
d. Ego functions.
Answer: c. Dreams.
109. Which of the following would not be considered as part of behavior therapy?
a. Assertion skills training.
b. Social skills training.
c. Journaling.
d. Token economy.
Answer: c. Journaling.
110. Who developed the procedure of Systematic desensitization?
a. Ivan Pavlov.
b. Albert Bandura.
c. Journaling.
d. B. F. Skinner.
Answer: c. Journaling.
111. ____________is based on the ideas of self-empowerment, self-actualization, freedom, choices, values, purpose and meaning of life.
a. Cognitive therapy.
b. Humanistic therapy.
c. Reality therapy.
d. Existential therapy.
Answer: b. Humanistic therapy.
112. According to Rogers, when there is a good relation between all three components of personality like real self, the perceived self and ideal self, the person has
a. Genuineness.
b. Congruence.
c. Empathy.
d. Positive Regard.
Answer: b. Congruence.
113. Beck originally developed cognitive therapy to treat
a. Borderline personality disorder.
b. Sociopathic disorder.
c. Depression.
d. Obsessive Compulsive disorder.
Answer: c. Depression.
114. Which ONE of the following theorists developed the concept of self-efficacy that has been used as a cognitive-behavioral theoretical explanation for how people change?
a. Aaron Beck.
b. Albert Ellis.
c. B.F. Skinner.
d. Albert Bandura.
Answer: d. Albert Bandura.
115. ___________ is one of the founders of brief therapy
a. Steve de Shazer.
b. Beck.
c. Satir.
d. Vroom.
Answer: a. Steve de Shazer.
116. Brief therapy is also known as ___________.
a. Crisis therapy.
b. Disaster therapy.
c. Short-term therapy.
d. Crash therapy.
Answer: c. Short-term therapy.
117. Arnold Lazarus, the founder of___________, espouses technical (or systematic) eclecticism.
a. Integrative approach.
b. Brief therapy.
c. Multimodal therapy.
d. Common factors.
Answer: c. Multimodal therapy.
118. __________approach to counselling practice focuses on thinking, feeling, and acting
a. Eclecticism.
b. Integrative.
c. Brief therapy.
d. Crisis Management.
Answer: b. Integrative.
119. The goals of _________ therapy include increasing the patients’ knowledge about medication, increasing compliance, educating patients about their illness, decreasing their isolation and helping them to express their feelings in a nonjudgmental environment
a. Supportive.
b. Self-help.
c. Encounter.
d. Medication.
Answer: d. Medication.
120. The goal of _________ group therapy is to increase patients’ awareness of themselves through interaction with other group members who provide feedback about their behaviour, to provide patients with improved interpersonal social skills and decrease isolation.
a. Inpatient.
b. Self-help.
c. Supportive.
d. Medication.
Answer: a. Inpatient.